Archive for March, 2010

interview questions and answers

March 28, 2010 By: Tips On Interview Category: Interview Tips

Interview Questions and Answers

Applying for a job is an easy task however, an employer short listing a
candidate’s resume and inviting for an interview is the hardest part.
Employers look for several qualities in a candidate – to name a few,
personal attire, knowledge and experience in the previous job, friendly and sociable person apart from other skills.

Job interviews are always stressful even for job seekers who have gone on countless interviews. The best way to reduce the stress is to be prepared. Take the time to review the “standard” interview questions you will most likely to be asked. Also review sample answers to these typical interview questions. Always take time to research the company. That way you’ll be ready with knowledgeable answers for the job interview questions that specifically relate to the company you are interviewing with.

Go through the below Mentioned INTERVIEW TOPICS and Frequently asked Interview Questions Before you attend for Interview. I am trying to give interview questions for each software course.

General Knowledge Interview Questions and Answers.

Seo Interview Questions and Answers

Php Interview Questions and Answers

Java Interview Questions and Answers

j2ee Interview Questions and Answers

Sap SD Interview Questions and Answers

Sap MM Interview Questions and Answers

Sap ABAP Interview Questions and Answers

Sap Fico Interview Questions and Answers

Sap BW Interview Questions and Answers

Testing Tools Interview Questions and Answers

Shell Scripting Interview Questions and Answers

Perl Scripting Interview Questions and Answers

Tigers, Save Tigers in India

March 27, 2010 By: Tips On Interview Category: News

Save Tigers

save Tigers

Save Tigers in india

Tigers Photo Gallery

Tiger our national animal is fighting for its life. From around 40,000 at the turn of the last century, there are just 1411. The figer may change at any point of time. As very few tigers are left in India and if we don’t act now, we could lose this part of our heritage forever. Send this article to as many friends as your can to give your support towards Tigers. Speak up, blog, share the concern, and stay informed… Every little bit of your movement towards  save tigers campaign will Help.

Tigers are facing major population losses & extinction. Tigers are killed for sport, skins & body parts. Our Past says that during the year 1950s we saw extinction of the Caspian tiger. The Bali and Java tiger are also extinct. The last Bali Tiger was killed in 1937; the last Javan tiger was seen in 1972. The South China tiger (20-30 are remaining), is nearly extinct in the wild.

The Bengal tiger is endangered because it is poached for its body parts to cater to an illegal market. Another reason is habitat loss due to depletion of forest cover interference of humans and encroachment of forest land by people causing fragmentation.

At the turn of the century, there were almost reportedly 40,000 to 45,000 tigers in India, but now there are very few to just 1411 remain in the wild. Tiger is symbol of wilderness and well-being of the ecosystem. By conserving and saving tigers the entire wilderness ecosystem is conserved. In nature, barring human beings and their domesticates, rest of the ecosystem is wild.

The wildlife products traded illegally from the country are Musk Deer for cosmetics, Bear for skin and bear bile, Elephant Tusk for ivory, Rhino horns for aphrodisiac, Tiger and Leopard skins for fashion products, oriental medicines and food, Snakes and Monitor Lizard skins for leather industry, Birds for pet trade and feather for decoration, Swiftlet nests for soups, Mongoose for bristles, Turtles for meat and soup, and Tibetan Antelope for shawls.

It is estimated that quantum of trade in wildlife products is just next to narcotics, valued at nearly 20 billion dollars in the global market; of this more than one third is illegal.

As per the monitoring exercise by Wildlife Institute of India in association with National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA), Government of India using camera traps, in 2008 we were left with only 1,411 tigers. This number is so small that they will be gone soon if we don’t wake up to the crisis.

The tiger is not just a charismatic species. It’s not just a wild animal living in some forest either. The tiger is a unique animal which plays a pivotal role in the health and diversity of an ecosystem. It is a top predator and is at the apex of the food chain and keeps the population of wild ungulates in check, thereby maintaining the balance between prey herbivores and the vegetation upon which they feed. Therefore the presence of tigers in the forest is an indicator of the well being of the ecosystem. The extinction of this top predator is an indication that its ecosystem is not sufficiently protected, and neither would it exist for long thereafter. If the tigers go extinct, the entire system would collapse.

When we protect one tiger, we protect about a 100 sq. km of area and thus save other species living in its habitat. Therefore, it’s not just about saving a beautiful animal. It is about making sure that we live a little longer as the forests are known to provide ecological services like clean air, water, pollination, temperature regulation etc. This way, our planet can still be home to our children.

Spread the word:

Go out loud and tell others that tigers are dying and that they need our help. As part of my effort I am trying to educated people through www.tipsoninterview.com So try to form forums or join in existing once for discussions and exchange views on how to save tigers and talk about tiger conservation. Reach School going children.

The wilderness is to be experienced and not to be disturbed and polluted. Follow the forest department guidelines when visiting any wilderness area, tiger reserve in particular. If you are really concerned and feel that more needs to be done for tiger conservation, then write polite letters to the decision makers – the Prime Minister, the Minister for Environment and Forests or even your local MP and MLA’s informing the nearest police station, If you know of any information on poaching or trade of illegal wildlife.

View Photo Gallery of Tigers

Save Tigers Photo Gallery

Tiger Pictures

Saving tiger amounts to saving the ecosystem which is crucial for man’s own survival.

Save Tigers in India

Save Tigers in India

Dos Commands, Commands Used In DOS, Basic dos Commands

March 25, 2010 By: Tips On Interview Category: Internet

138 Commands Used In DOS

1 ANSI.SYS — Defines functions that change display graphics, control cursor movement, and reassign keys.

2 APPEND — Causes MS-DOS to look in other directories when editing a file or running a command.

3 ARP — Displays, adds, and removes arp information from network devices

4 ASSIGN — Assign a drive letter to an alternate letter

5 ASSOC — View the file associations

6 AT — Schedule a time to execute commands or programs.

7 ATMADM — Lists connections and addresses seen by Windows ATM call manager.

8 ATTRIB — Display and change file attributes.

9 BATCH — NRecovery console command that executes a series of commands in a file.

10 BOOTCFG — Recovery console command that allows a user to view, modify, and rebuild the boot.ini

11 BREAK — Enable / disable CTRL + C feature.

12 CACLS — View and modify file ACL’s.

13 CALL — Calls a batch file from another batch file.

14 CD — Changes directories.

15 CHCP — Supplement the International keyboard and character set information.

16 CHDIR — Changes directories.

17 CHKDSK — Check the hard disk drive running FAT for errors.

18 CHKNTFS — Check the hard disk drive running NTFS for errors.

19 CHOICE — Specify a listing of multiple options within a batch file.

20 CLS — Clears the screen.

21 CMD — Opens the command interpreter.

22 COLOR — Easily change the foreground and background color of the
MS-DOS window.

23 COMP — Compares files.

24 COMPACT — Compresses and uncompress files.

25 CONTROL — Open control panel icons from the MS-DOS prompt.

26 CONVERT Convert FAT to NTFS.

27 COPY — Copy one or more files to an alternate location.

28 CTTY — Change the computers input/output devices.

29 DATE — View or change the systems date.

30 DEBUG — Debug utility to create assembly programs to modify hardware settings.

31 DEFRAG — Re-arrange the hard disk drive to help with loading programs.

32 DEL — Deletes one or more files.

33 DELETE — Recovery console command that deletes a file.

34 DELTREE — Deletes one or more files and/or directories.

35 DIR — List the contents of one or more directory.

36 DISABLE — Recovery console command that disables Windows system services or drivers.

37 DISKCOMP — Compare a disk with another disk.

38 DISKCOPY — Copy the contents of one disk and place them on another disk.

39 DOSKEY — Command to view and execute commands that have been run in the past.

40 DOSSHELL — A GUI to help with early MS-DOS users.

41 DRIVPARM — Enables overwrite of original device drivers.

42 ECHO — Displays messages and enables and disables echo.

43 EDIT — View and edit files.

44 EDLIN — View and edit files.

45 EMM386 — Load extended Memory Manager.

46 ENABLE — Recovery console command to enable a disable service or driver.

47 ENDLOCAL — Stops the localization of the environment changes
enabled by the setlocal command.

48 ERASE — Erase files from computer.

49 EXPAND — Expand a Microsoft Windows file back to it’s original format.

50 EXIT — Exit from the command interpreter.

51 EXTRACT — Extract files from the Microsoft Windows cabinets.

52 FASTHELP — Displays a listing of MS-DOS commands and information about them

53 FC — Compare files.

54 FDISK — Utility used to create partitions on the hard disk drive.

55 FIND — Search for text within a file.

56 FINDSTR — Searches for a string of text within a file.

57 FIXBOOT — Writes a new boot sector.

59 FIXMBR — Writes a new boot record to a disk drive.

60 FOR — Boolean used in batch files.

61 FORMAT — Command to erase and prepare a disk drive.

62 FTP — Command to connect and operate on a FTP server.

63 FTYPE — Displays or modifies file types used in file extension
associations.

64 GOTO — Moves a batch file to a specific label or location.

65 GRAFTABL — Show extended characters in graphics mode.

66 HELP — Display a listing of commands and brief explanation.

67 IF — Allows for batch files to perform conditional processing.

68 IFSHLP.SYS — 32-bit file manager.

69 IPCONFIG — Network command to view network adapter settings and assigned values.

70 KEYB — Change layout of keyboard.

71 LABEL — Change the label of a disk drive.

72 LH — Load a device driver in to high memory.

73 LISTSVC — Recovery console command that displays the services and drivers.

74 LOADFIX — Load a program above the first 64k.

75 LOADHIGH — Load a device driver in to high memory.

76 LOCK — Lock the hard disk drive.

77 LOGON — Recovery console command to list installations and enable administrator login.

78 MAP — Displays the device name of a drive.

79 MD — Command to create a new directory.

80 MEM — Display memory on system.

81 MKDIR — Command to create a new directory.

82 MODE — Modify the port or display settings.

83 MORE — Display one page at a time.

84 MOVE — Move one or more files from one directory to another DIRECTORY

85 MSAV — Early Microsoft Virus scanner.

86 MSD — Diagnostics utility.

87 MSCDEX — Utility used to load and provide access to the CD-ROM.

88 NBTSTAT — Displays protocol statistics and current TCP/IP connections using NBT

89 NET — Update, fix, or view the network or network settings

90 NETSH — Configure dynamic and static network information from MS-DOS.

91 NETSTAT — Display the TCP/IP network protocol statistics and information.

92 NLSFUNC — Load country specific information.

93 NSLOOKUP — Look up an IP address of a domain or host on a network.

94 PATH — View and modify the computers path location

95 PATHPING — View and locate locations of network latency

96 PAUSE — command used in batch files to stop the processing of a command.

97 PING — Test / send information to another network computer or network device .

98 POPD — Changes to the directory or network path stored by the pushd command.

99 POWER — Conserve power with computer portables.

100 PRINT — Prints data to a printer port.

101 PROMPT — View and change the MS-DOS prompt.

102 PUSHD — Stores a directory or network path in memory so it can be returned to at any time.

103 QBASIC — Open the QBasic.

104 RD — Removes an empty directory.

105 REN — Renames a file or directory.

106 RENAME — Renames a file or directory.

107 RMDIR — Removes an empty directory.

108 ROUTE — View and configure windows network route tables.

109 RUNAS — Enables a user to execute a program on another
computer.

110 SCANDISK — Run the scandisk utility.

111 SCANREG — Scan registry and recover registry from errors.

112 SET — Change one variable or string to another.

113 SETLOCAL — Enables local environments to be changed without affecting anything else.

114 SHARE — Installs support for file sharing and locking capabilities.

115 SETVER — Change MS-DOS version to trick older MS-DOS programs.

116 SHIFT — Changes the position of replaceable parameters in a batch program.

117 SHUTDOWN — Shutdown the computer from the MS-DOS prompt.

118 SMARTDRV — Create a disk cache in conventional memory or extended memory.

119 SORT — Sorts the input and displays the output to the screen.

120 START — Start a separate window in Windows from the MS-DOS prompt.

121 SUBST — Substitute a folder on your computer for another drive letter.

122 SWITCHES — Remove add functions from MS-DOS.

123 SYS — Transfer system files to disk drive.

124 TELNET — Telnet to another computer / device from the prompt.

125 TIME — View or modify the system time.

126 TITLE — Change the title of their MS-DOS window.

127 TRACERT — Visually view a network packets route across a network.

128 TREE — View a visual tree of the hard disk drive.

129 TYPE — Display the contents of a file.

130 UNDELETE — Undelete a file that has been deleted.

131 UNFORMAT — Unformat a hard disk drive.

132 UNLOCK — Unlock a disk drive.

133 VER — Display the version information.

134 VERIFY– Enables or disables the feature to determine if files have been written properly.

135 VOL — Displays the volume information about the designated drive.

136 XCOPY — Copy multiple files, directories, and/or drives from one location to another.

137 TRUENAME — When placed before a file, will display the whole directory in which it exists

138 TASKKILL — It allows you to kill those unneeded or locked up applications

Lic Agent Question paper

March 22, 2010 By: Tips On Interview Category: Insurance, lic Agent Question Paper

Lic Agent Exam Model Question Paper

Are you attending for Lic Agent Exam? Then read this collection of important LIC Agent Interview Question and answer . When you attend for online Exam you get questions in Multiple Choice. Below Mentioned are some important Questions asked for LIC Agent Exam.

1) Insurance works on the principle of

a Trust
b Sharing
c Randomness
d All of the above

2 Insurance is legitimate

a when an adverse happening is likely
b When an adverse happening is unlikely
c When an adverse happening is certain
d In all the above three situations

3 Insurance benefits replace

a All physical losses, in full
b All physical losses, partly
c All monetary losses, in full
d The monetary losses, but only to some extent

4 Which one of the following statements is correct?

a People hesitate to buy life insurance because they are not aware of their needs
b People hesitate to buy life insurance because they prefer to enjoy the present
c Both the statements are correct
d Both the statements are wrong

5 Which is the right time for taking life insurance?

a When you are about to get married
b Soon after you have got married
c Just when you are joined a new job
d All the three ‘times’ are right

6 Retention of risk may be done conveniently by

a Large corporations
b Small companies
c Single individuals
d None of the three

7 A valuation is done by a life insurer because

a It is a statutory requirement
b It is necessary to be able to declare dividends to shareholders
c It tells the insurer how well it is managing the business
d All of the above

8 The reason for charging level premiums is

a Risk increases as age increases
b It is convenient to the policyholder
c It is convenient to the insurer
d All the above reasons

9 What does a premium depend upon?

a The place of worship visited by the person to be insured
b The state of health of the policyholder
c The decision of the underwriter
d The report of the agent

10 State which one of the following statements is correct?

a In group insurance, a single policy is issued covering many persons
b A master policy covers servants of a master
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong

11 Which one of the following statements is correct?

a In a limited payment policy, there is a maximum limit to the SA
b In a limited payment policy, there is a maximum limit to the term
c Both the statements above are wrongd Both the statements above are correct

12 Which one of the following statements is true with regard to Children’s policies?

a On vesting, the insured person has an option to change the term of the policy
b On vesting the insured person has an option to increase the SA
c Both the statements above are wrong
d Both the statements above are correct

13 Which of the following could be the basis of the cover in a group policy?

a Height of the life insured
b Age of the life insured
c Size of the insured’s family
d All the three above

14 Which one of the following statements is true with regard to Children’s policies?

a On vesting, the insured person has an option to change the term of the policy
b On vesting the insured person has an option to increase the SA
c Both the statements above are wrong
d Both the statements above are correct

15 Which one of the following statements is correct?

a Every plan of insurance is a combination of two basic plans
b The name given to a plan indicates the benefits available under the plan
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statement s above are wrong

16 Which one of the following statements is correct?

a Underwriting is done only when there is a medical examination
b Medical examination is necessary before a policy can be issued
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong

17 Which one of the following statements is correct?

a The underwriter determines the premium to be charged
b The underwriter is an employee of the insurer
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong

18 Which one of the following statements is correct?

a If the underwriter feels that the risk is more, he will accept at OR
b If the underwriter feels that the risk is more, he may impose a lienc Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong

19 Which one of the following statements is correct?

a The schedule of a policy is not altered after the policy is issued
b Changes in the terms of the policy are made through endorsements
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong

20 The date of issue of the FPR indicates

a The date when the risk effectively begins
b The date when the next premium falls due
c The date when the policy will commence
d None of the above

21 Which one of the following statements is correct?

a In the case of SSS policies, renewal premium receipts are issued
b In the case of SSS policies, FPRs are issued
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong

22 Which one of the following statements is correct?

a Assignee is free from the assignor’s obligations under the policy
b A nomination is automatically cancelled when a loan is taken under the policy
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong

23 Which one of the following statements is correct?

a The beneficiaries under the MWP Act can be any member of the family
b A policy can be taken under the MMWP Act for the benefit of parents
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong

24 Which one of the following statements is correct?

a Foreclosure can be done only with the consent of the policyholder
b Foreclosure can be done only after informing the policyholder
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong

25 Which one of the following statements is correct?

a Revivals are not done unless the entire outstanding premium is paid
b Revivals are not done unless the underwriter agrees
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong

26 Which one of the following statements is correct?

a Foreclosure action cannot be taken till a notice is served on the policyholder
b When a foreclosure action is taken, nothing is payable to the policyholder
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong

27 Which one of the following statements is correct?

a The beneficiaries under the MWP Act can be any member of the family
b A policy can be taken under the MMWP Act for the benefit of parents
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong

28 Which one of the following statements is correct?

a A presumption of death is not the same as proof of death
b Presumption of death allows inheritance of property
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong

29 When does a claim arise under an insurance policy?

a Whenever the policyholder feels the need for money
b When the insured events happen
c When a premium is not paid
d Whenever any of the three things mentioned above happen

30 Which one of the following statements is correct?

a Maturity claim cheques are paid to the trustees in a MWP Act case
b Maturity claim cheques are paid to the beneficiaries in a MWP Act case
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong

31 If a claim is made in January 2007 under a policy, which commenced in May 2002, stating that the life insured had died in April 2004,

a Section 45 of the Act will not apply
b The claim can be treated as an early claim
c Foul play must be suspected
d All the three statements above are correct

32 Which one of the following statements is correct?

a A policy reported to be lost, may actually have been assigned
b A policy has no value after the payment of survival benefits
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong

33 Which one of the following statements is correct?

a The foreign exchange regulations apply if the life insured is a non-resident
b The foreign exchange regulations apply if the claimant is a non-resident
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong

34 State which of the following statements is correct

a ULIPs provide for flexibilityb ULIPs are better than traditional policies
c Both the above statements are correct
d Both the above statements are wrong

35 State which of the following statements is correct

a In ULIPs, the offer bid spread is the difference between the two prices
b In ULIPs, the offer bid spread, will in some cases be zero
c Both the above statements are correct
d Both the above statements are wrong

36 State which of the following statements is correct

a In ULIPs the insurance cover must be a minimum multiple of the premium
b ULIPs can be surrendered after two years
c Both the above statements are correct
d Both the above statements are wrong

37 State which one of the following statements is correct

a Life insurance is the best savings scheme for all persons
b Life insurance is the best investment scheme for young persons
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong

38 Which of the following statements is correct?

a An insurance agent has fixed working hours
b An insurance agent has to mark his attendance in office every day
c An insurance agent works according to his scheduled An insurance agent cannot do any other work

39 State which one of the following statements is correct

a When vital information is not disclosed, the policyholder is benefited
b When a claim is repudiated, the agent’s trustworthiness is affected
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong

40 State which one of the following statements is correct?

a The social sector is not only in the urban areas
b The social sector includes the unorganized sector
c Both the statements above are correctd Both the statements above are wrong

41 State which one of the following statements is correct?

a The Ombudsman’s authority is limited to claims matters only
b The Ombudsman is not a judicial authority
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong

42 State which one of the following statements is correct?

a The tax provisions are the same for all kinds of savings
b The tax provisions are included in the Constitution
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong

43 A proposal for SA of Rs. 10 lakhs with DAB for monthly mode under SSS.
Proposer had a previous policy of Rs. 5 lakhs with DAB. Proposal was
accepted with health extra of Rs. 2.75 per thousand SA premium for DAB Re 1 per
thousand. 5% extra for monthly mode. large SA rebate of Rs 2/- per thousand for
1 lakh and above. Tabular premium Rs. 48.20 maximum total SA on which DAB is allowed is Rs. 10/- lakhs.
Find monthly (SSS) premium, rounded off to the next higher rupee
a 4102
b 4121
c 4183
d 4195

44 Find out surrender value on the basis of following data (the answer to
be rounded off to the next lower rupee). SA Rs.30, 000 DOC- 15.6.1992,
Endowment with profit – 30 years
Due date of last premium paid 15-06-2007 mode half yearly
Accrued bonus Rs.750/- per thousand SA. SV factor 23%
a 3670
b 3765
c 8740
d None of these

45 A money back policy for SA. of Rs.50,000/- Matured after 25 years.
Survival benefits of 15% each had been paid at the end of 5th, 10th, 15th,
and 20th years. Bonus had accrued at Rs.965/- per Rs.1000/- SA. Interim bonus
@ Rs.25/- per thousand SA is payable. What is the maturity claim amount?
a 68250
b 69500
c 98250
d 99500

Correct Answers for Above Exam Questions

1 d 2 a 3 d 4 c 5 d 6 a 7 d 8 d 9 c 10 a

11 c 12 c 13 b 14 c 15 a 16 d 17 c 18 b 19 c 20 a

21 b 22 d 23 d 24 b 25 d 26 a 27 d 28 c 29 b 30 a

31 d 32 a 33 c 34 a 35 c 36 a 37 d 38 c 39 b 40 c

41 b 42 d 43 b 44 c 45 b